Posted on July 22, 2020 Uncategorized Please enter your email: 1. When a wired client connects to an edge switch in an SDA fabric, which component decides whether the client has access to the network? A. control-plane node B. Identity Service Engine C. RADIUS server D. edge node 2. An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as the exit point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers, which configuration accomplish task? A. R4(config-router)#bgp default local-preference 200 B. R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 weight 200 C. R3(config-router)#bgp default local-preference 200 D. R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 weight 200 3. D. R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 weight 200 A. SNMP B. REST C. RESTCONF D. NX-API 4. Which configuration restricts the amount of SSH that a router accepts 100 kbps? A. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH police cir 100000 exceed-action drop ! ! ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.0 ip access-group CoPP_SSH out duplex auto speed auto media-type rj45 service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH permit tcp any any eq 22 ! B. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH police cir CoPP_SSH exceed-action drop ! ! ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.0 ip access-group … out duplex auto speed auto media-type rj45 service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH deny tcp any any eq 22 ! C. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH police cir 100000 exceed-action drop ! ! ! control-plane service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH deny tcp any any eq 22 ! D. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH police cir 100000 exceed-action drop ! ! ! control-plane transit service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH permit tcp any any eq 22 ! 5. What NTP stratum level is a server that is connected directly to an authoritative time source? A. Stratum 0 B. Stratum 1 C. Stratum 14 D. Stratum 15 6. How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion? A. It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate B. It buffers and queue packets above the committed rate. C. It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery. D. It drops packets randomly from lower priority queues. 7. An engineer is describing QoS to a client. Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two) A. Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic B. Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible C. Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate D. Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it E. Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible 8. What mechanism does PIM use to forward multicast traffic? A. PIM sparse mode uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic B. PIM dense mode uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic C. PIM sparse mode uses receivers to register with the RP D. PIM sparse mode uses a flood and prune model to deliver multicast traffic 9. Which two namespaces does the LISP network architecture and protocol use? (Choose two) A. TLOC B. RLOC C. DNS D. VTEP E. EID 10. Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol should be used to meet a design requirements for more efficient default bandwidth usage across multiple devices? A. GLBP B. LCAP C. HSRP D. VRRP 11. A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0. Which configuration set accomplishes this goal? A. R1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)#ip ospf network point-to-point R2(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf network point-to-point B. R1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)#ip ospf network broadcast R2(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf network broadcast C. R1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)#ip ospf database-filter all out R2(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf database-filter all out D. R1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)#ip ospf priority 1 R2(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority 1 12. What are two reasons why broadcast radiation is caused in the virtual machine environment? (Choose two) A. vSwitch must interrupt the server CPU to process the broadcast packet B. The Layer 2 domain can be large in virtual machine environments C. Virtual machines communicate primarily through broadcast mode D. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is broadcast based E. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is multicast based 13. A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure. Which design facilities a migrate from a traditional campus design to a programmer fabric designer? A. Layer 2 access B. three-tier C. two-tier D. routed access 14. When a wireless client roams between two different wireless controllers, a network connectivity outage is experience for a period of time. Which configuration issue would cause this problem? A. Not all of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name B. Not all of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address C. All of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address D. All of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name 15. Which algorithms are used to secure REST API from brute attacks and minimize the impact? A. SHA-512 and SHA-384 B. MD5 algorithm-128 and SHA-384 C. SHA-1, SHA-256, and SHA-512 D. PBKDF2, BCrypt, and SCrypt 16. What is the role of the RP in PIM sparse mode? A. The RP responds to the PIM join messages with the source of requested multicast group B. The RP maintains default aging timeouts for all multicast streams requested by the receivers C. The RP acts as a control-plane node and does not receive or forward multicast packets D. The RP is the multicast that is the root of the PIM-SM shared multicast distribution tree 17. A network administrator is preparing a Python script to configure a Cisco IOS XE-based device on the network. The administrator is worried that colleagues will make changes to the device while the script is running. Which operation of the client manager in prevent colleague making changes to the device while the script is running? A. m.lock(config=‘running‘) B. m.lock(target=‘running‘) C. m.freeze(target=‘running‘) D. m.freeze(config=‘running‘) 18. What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two) A. core switch B. vBond controller C. edge node D. access switch E. border node 19. Which component handles the orchestration plane of the Cisco SD-WAN? A. vBond B. vSmart C. vManage D. vEdge 20. Which two entities are Type 1 hypervisors? (Choose two) A. Oracle VM VirtualBox B. Microsoft Hyper-V C. VMware server D. VMware ESX E. Microsoft Virtual PC 21. Which access point mode allows a supported AP to function like a WLAN client would, associating and identifying client connectivity issues? A. client mode B. SE-connect mode C. sensor mode D. sniffer mode 22. An engineer must deny Telnet traffic from the loopback interface of router R3 to the loopback interface of router R2 during the weekend hours. All other traffic between the loopback interfaces of routers R3 and R2 must be allowed at all times. Which command accomplish this task? A. R3(config)#time-range WEEKEND R3(config-time-range)#periodic Saturday Sunday 00:00 to 23:59 R3(config)#access-list 150 deny tcp host 10.3.3.3 host 10.2.2.2 eq 23 time-range WEEKEND R3(config)#access-list 150 permit ip any any time-range WEEKEND R3(config)#interface Gi0/1 R3(config-if)#ip access-group 150 out B. R1(config)#time-range WEEKEND R1(config-time-range)#periodic Friday Sunday 00:00 to 00:00 R1(config)#access-list 150 deny tcp host 10.3.3.3 host 10.2.2.2 eq 23 time-range WEEKEND R1(config)#access-list 150 permit ip any any R1(config)#interface Gi0/1 R1(config-if)#ip access-group 150 in C. R1(config)#time-range WEEKEND R1(config-time-range)#periodic weekend 00:00 to 23:59 R1(config)#access-list 150 deny tcp host 10.3.3.3 host 10.2.2.2 eq 23 time-range WEEKEND R1(config)#access-list 150 permit ip any any R1(config)#interface Gi0/1 R1(config-if)#ip access-group 150 in D. R3(config)#time-range WEEKEND R3(config-time-range)#periodic weekend 00:00 to 23:59 R3(config)#access-list 150 deny tcp host 10.3.3.3 host 10.2.2.2 eq 23 time-range WEEKEND R3(config)#access-list 150 permit ip any any time-range WEEKEND R3(config)#interface Gi0/1 R3(config-if)#ip access-group 150 out 23. Which tool is used in Cisco DNA Center to build generic configurations that are able to be applied on device with similar network settings? A. Command Runner B. Template Editor C. Application Policies D. Authentication Template 24. A client device roams between access points located on different floors in an atrium. The access points joined to the same controller and configuration in local mode. The access points are in different IP addresses, but the client VLAN in the group same. What type of roam occurs? A. inter-controller B. inter-subnet C. intra-VLAN D. intra-controller 25. What does the LAP send when multiple WLCs respond to the CISCO_CAPWAPCONTROLLER.localdomain hostname during the CAPWAP discovery and join process? A. broadcast discover request B. join request to all the WLCs C. unicast discovery request to each WLC D. Unicast discovery request to the first WLC that resolves the domain name 26. vlan 222 remote-span ! vlan 223 remote-span ! monitor session 1 source interface FastEthernet0/1 tx monitor session 1 source interface FastEthernet0/2 rx monitor session 1 source interface port-channel 5 monitor session 1 destination remote vlan 222 ! What is the result when a technician adds the monitor session 1 destination remote vlan 233 command? A. The RSPAN VLAN is replaced by VLAN 223 B. RSPAN traffic is sent to VLANs 222 and 223 B. RSPAN traffic is sent to VLANs 222 and 223 D. RSPAN traffic is split between VLANs 222 and 223 27. In an SD-Access solution what is the role of a fabric edge node? A. to connect external Layer 3- network to the SD-Access fabric B. to connect wired endpoint to the SD-Access fabric C. to advertise fabric IP address space to external network D. to connect the fusion router to the SD-Access fabric 28. The inside and outside interfaces in the NAT configuration of this device have been correctly identified. What is the effect of this configuration? A. dynamic NAT B. static NAT C. PAT D. NAT64 29. Which component of the Cisco Cyber Threat Defense solution provides user and flow context analysis? A. Cisco Firepower and FireSIGHT B. Cisco Stealthwatch system C. Advanced Malware Protection D. Cisco Web Security Appliance 30. An engineer must protect their company against ransom ware attacks. Which solution allows the engineer to block the execution stage and prevent file encryption? A. Use Cisco AMP deployment with the Malicious Activity Protection engineer enabled B. Use Cisco AMP deployment with the Exploit Prevention engine enabled C. Use Cisco Firepower and block traffic to TOR networks D. Use Cisco Firepower with Intrusion Policy and snort rules blocking SMB exploitation 31. Assuming the WLC‘s interfaces are not in the same subnet as the RADIUS server, which interface would the WLC use as the source for all RADIUS-related traffic? A. the interface specified on the WLAN configuration B. any interface configured on the WLC C. the controller management interface D. the controller virtual interface 32. Which benefit is offered by a cloud infrastructure deployment but is lacking in an onpremises deployment? A. efficient scalability B. virtualization C. storage capacity D. supported systems 33. Wireless users report frequent disconnections from the wireless network. While troubleshooting a network engineer finds that after the user a disconnect, the connection reestablishes automatically without any input required. The engineer also notices these message logs. Which action reduces the user impact? A. increase the dynamic channel assignment interval B. increase BandSelect C. increase the AP heartbeat timeout D. enable coverage hole detection 34. Which DHCP option helps lightweight APs find the IP address of a wireless LAN controller? A. Option 43 B. Option 60 C. Option 67 D. Option 150 35. A network administrator applies the following configuration to an IOS device. What is the process of password checks when a login attempt is made to the device? A. A TACACS+ server is checked first. If that check fail, a database is checked B. A TACACS+ server is checked first. If that check fail, a RADIUS server is checked. If that check fail, a local database is checked C. A local database is checked first. If that fails, a TACACS+server is checked, if that check fails, a RADIUS server is checked D. A local database is checked first. If that check fails, a TACACS+server is checked 36. What is the role of the vsmart controller in a Cisco SD-WAN environment? A. IT performs authentication and authorization B. It manages the control plane. C. It is the centralized network management system. D. It manages the data plane. 37. Why is an AP joining a different WLC than the one specified through option 43? A. The WLC is running a different software version B. The API is joining a primed WLC C. The AP multicast traffic unable to reach the WLC through Layer 3 D. The APs broadcast traffic is unable to reach the WLC through Layer 2 38. Which devices does Cisco Center configure when deploying an IP-based access control policy? A. All devices integrating with ISE B. selected individual devices C. all devices in selected sites D. all wired devices 39. Which method of account authentication does OAuth 2.0 within REST APIs? A. username/role combination B. access tokens C. cookie authentication D. basic signature workflow 40. What does the Cisco DNA Center use to enable the delivery of applications through a network and to yield analytics for innovation? A. process adapters B. Command Runner C. intent-based APIs D. domain adapters 41. Which action is a function of VTEP in VXLAN? A. tunneling traffic from IPv6 to IPv4 VXLANs A. tunneling traffic from IPv6 to IPv4 VXLANs A. tunneling traffic from IPv6 to IPv4 VXLANs D. tunneling traffic from IPv4 to IPv6 VXLANs 42. Which type of antenna does the radiation pattern represent? A. Yagi B. multidirectional C. directional patch D. omnidirectional 43. Which PAgP mode combination prevents an Etherchannel from forming? A. auto/auto B. desirable/desirable C. auto/desirable D. desirable 44. Refer to the exhibit. A port channel is configured between SW2 and SW3. SW2 is not running Cisco operating system. When all physical connections are mode, the port channel does not establish. Based on the configuration excerpt of SW3, what is the cause of the problem? A. The port channel on SW2 is using an incompatible protocol B. The port-channel trunk is not allowing the native VLAN C. The port-channel should be set to auto D. The port-channel interface lead balance should be set to src-mac 45. Refer to exhibit. VLANs 50 and 60 exist on the trunk links between all switches. All access ports on SW3 are configured for VLAN 50 and SW1 is the VTP server. Which command ensures that SW3 receives frames only from VLAN 50? A. SW1 (config)#vtp pruning B. SW3(config)#vtp mode transparent C. SW2(config)#vtp pruning D. SW1(config)>vtp mode transparent 46. Refer to the exhibit. SwitchC connects HR and Sales to the Core switch. However, business needs require that no traffic from the Finance VLAN traverse this switch. Which command meets this requirement? A. SwitchC(config)#vtp pruning B. SwitchC(config)#vtp pruning vlan 110 C. SwitchC(config)#interface port-channel 1 SwitchC(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan add 210,310 D. SwitchC(config)#interface port-channel 1 SwitchC(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 110 47. Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment? A. Connects the SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks B. Connects endpoints to the fabric and forwards their traffic C. Provides reachability border nodes in the fabric underlay C. Provides reachability border nodes in the fabric underlay 48. Which action is the vSmart controller responsible for in an SD-WAN deployment? A. onboard vEdge nodes into the SD-WAN fabric B. distribute security information for tunnel establishment between vEdge routers C. manage, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the SD-WAN fabric D. gather telemetry data from vEdge routers 49. Which statement about a Cisco APIC controller versus a more traditional SDN controller is true? A. APIC uses a policy agent to translate policies into instructions B. APIC supports OpFlex as a Northbound protocol C. APIC does support a Southbound REST API D. APIC uses an imperative model 50. What the role of a fusion in an SD-Access solution? A. provides connectivity to external networks A. provides connectivity to external networks C. performs route leaking between user-defined virtual networks and shared services D. provides additional forwarding capacity to the fabric 51. Which statement about a fabric access point is true? A. It is in local mode an must be connected directly to the fabric border node B. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node C. It is in local mode an must connected directly to the fabric edge switch D. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch 52. On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric? A. LISP B. IS-IS B. IS-IS D. VXLAN 53. Which description of an SD-Access wireless network infrastructure deployment is true? A. The access point is part of the fabric underlay B. The WLC is part of the fabric underlay C. The access point is part the fabric overlay D. The wireless client is part of the fabric overlay 54. Which controller is the single plane of management for Cisco SD-WAN? A. vBond B. vEdge C. vSmart D. vManage 55. Which statement about the default QoS configuration on a Cisco switch is true? A. All traffic is sent through four egress queues B. Port trust is enabled C. The Port Cos value is 0 D. The Cos value of each tagged packet is modified 56. Which QoS mechanism will prevent a decrease in TCP performance? A. Shaper B. Policer C. WRED D. Rate-Limit E. LLQ F. Fair-Queue 57. Which QoS component alters a packet to change the way that traffic is treated in the network? A. Marking B. Classification C. Shaping D. Policing 58. Which marking field is used only as an internal marking within a router? A. QOS Group B. Discard Eligiblity C. IP Precedence D. MPLS Experimental 59. Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true? A. It uses a fast cache that is maintained in a router data plane B. It maintains two tables in the data plane the FIB and adjacency table C. It makes forwarding decisions by a process that is scheduled through the IOS scheduler D. The CPU of a router becomes directly involved with packet-switching decisions 60. Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding load balancing are true? (Choose two) A. Cisco Express Forwarding can load-balance over a maximum of two destinations B. It combines the source IP address subnet mask to create a hash for each destination C. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the RIB D. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the adjacency table E. It combines the source and destination IP addresses to create a hash for each destination 61. How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other? A. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table B. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for processing before they are sent to the FIB C. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices D. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions 62. What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB? A. The RIB is used to make IP source prefix-based switching decisions B. The FIB is where all IP routing information is stored C. The RIB maintains a mirror image of the FIB D. The FIB is populated based on RIB content 63. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that R1 is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1? A. VRF VPN_B B. Default VRF C. Management VRF D. VRF VPN_A 64. Which statement about route targets is true when using VRF-Lite? A. When BGP is configured, route targets are transmitted as BGP standard communities B. Route targets control the import and export of routes into a customer routing table C. Route targets allow customers to be assigned overlapping addresses D. Route targets uniquely identify the customer routing table 65. Which two statements about VRF-lite are true? (Choose two) A. It can increase the packet switching rate B. It supports most routing protocols, including EIGRP, ISIS, and OSPF C. It supports MPLS-VRF label exchange and labeled packets D. It should be used when a customer‘s router is connected to an ISP over OSPF E. It can support multiple customers on a single switch 66. Which statement explains why Type 1 hypervisor is considered more efficient than Type 2 hypervisor? A. Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware of the host machine without relying on the underlying OS B. Type 1 hypervisor enables other operating systems to run on it C. Type 1 hypervisor relies on the existing OS of the host machine to access CPU, memory, storage, and network resources D. Type 1 hypervisor is the only type of hypervisor that supports hardware acceleration techniques 67. What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in data center environment? (Choose two) A. increased security B. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements C. reduced IP and MAC address requirements D. speedy deployment E. smaller Layer 2 domain 68. Which statement describes the IP and MAC allocation requirements for virtual machines on type 1 hypervisors? A. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses to be able to reach to other nodes B. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the physical server C. Each virtual machines requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the address of the physical server D. Each virtual machine requires a unique MAC address but shares the IP address with the physical server 69. What is the main function of VRF-lite? A. To allow devices to use labels to make Layer 2 Path decisions B. To segregate multiple routing tables on a single device C. To connect different autonomous systems together to share routes D. To route IPv6 traffic across an IPv4 backbone 70. Refer to the exhibit. You have just created a new VRF on PE3. You have enabled debug ip bgp vpnv4 unicast updates on PE1, and you can see the route in the debug, but not in the BGP VPNv4 table. Which two statements are true? (Choose two) A. VPNv4 is not configured between PE1 and PE3 B. address-family ipv4 vrf is not configured on PE3 C. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE3, the route will be accepted D. PE1 will reject the route due to automatic route filtering E. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE1, the route will be accepted 71. Which LISP device is responsible for publishing EID-to-RLOC mappings for a site? A. ETR B. MS C. ITR D. MR 72. Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination? A. PETR B. PITR C. map resolver D. map server 73. Into which two pieces of information does the LISP protocol split the device identity? (Choose two) A. Routing Locator B. Endpoint Identifier C. Resource Location D. Enterprise Identifier E. LISP ID F. Device ID 74. Refer to the exhibit. Which LISP component do routers in the public IP network use to forward traffic between the two networks? A. EID B. RLOC C. map server D. map resolver 75. Which statement about VXLAN is true? A. VXLAN uses TCP 35 the transport protocol over the physical data center network B. VXLAN extends the Layer 2 Segment ID field to 24-bits, which allows up to 4094 unique Layer 2 segments over the same network C. VXLAN encapsulates a Layer 2 frame in an IP-UDP header, which allows Layer 2 adjacency across router boundaries D. VXLAN uses the Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention 76. Which OSPF networks types are compatible and allow communication through the two peering devices? A. broadcast to nonbroadcast B. point-to-multipoint to nonbroadcast C. broadcast to point-to-point D. point-to-multipoint to broadcast 77. Based on this interface configuration, what is the expected state of OSPF adjacency? R1 interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 192.0.2.1 255.255.255.252 ip ospf 1 area 0 ip ospf hello-interval 2 ip ospf cost 1 R2 interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 192.0.2.2 255.255.255.252 ip ospf 1 area 0 ip ospf cost 500 A. Full on both routers B. not established C. 2WAY/DROTHER on both routers D. FULL/BDR on R1 and FULL/BDR on R2 78. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the OPSF debug output is true? R1#debug ip ospf hello R1#debug condition interface fa0/1 Condition 1 set A. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on interface Fa0/1 B. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on all interfaces C. The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent or received on interface Fa0/1 D. The output displays OSPF hello and LSACK messages which router R1 has sent or received 79. Which EIGRP feature allows the use of leak maps? A. offset-list B. neighbor C. address-family D. stub 80. Which two statements about EIGRP load balancing are true? (Choose two) A. EIGRP supports 6 unequal-cost paths B. A path can be used for load balancing only if it is a feasible successor C. EIGRP supports unequal-cost paths by default D. Any path in the EIGRP topology table can be used for unequal-cost load balancing E. Cisco Express Forwarding is required to load-balance across interfaces 81. Which statement about LISP encapsulation in an EIGRP OTP implementation is true? A. OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling B. OTP maintains the LISP control plane C. OTP uses LISP encapsulation to obtain routes from neighbors D. LISP learns the next hop 82. Which reason could cause an OSPF neighborship to be in the EXSTART/EXCHANGE state? A. Mismatched OSPF network type B. Mismatched areas C. Mismatched MTU size D. Mismatched OSPF link costs 83. Which feature is supported by EIGRP but is not supported by OSPF? A. route summarization B. equal-cost load balancing C. unequal-cost load balancing D. route filtering 84. Refer to the exhibit. Which IPv6 OSPF network type is applied to interface Fa0/0 of R2 by default? A. broadcast B. Ethernet C. multipoint D. point-to-point 85. In OSPF, which LSA type is responsible for pointing to the ASBR router? A. type 1 B. type 2 C. type 3 D. type 4 86. A local router shows an EBGP neighbor in the Active state. Which statement is true about the local router? A. The local router has active prefix in the forwarding table firom the neighboring router B. The local router has BGP passive mode configured for the neighboring router C. The local router is attempting to open a TCP session with the neighboring router D. The local router is receiving prefixes from the neighboring router and adding them in RIBIN 87. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration establishes EBGP neighborship between these two directly connected neighbors and exchanges the loopback network of the two routers through BGP? A. R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#network 10.2.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0 B. R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#network 10.2.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0 C. R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0 D. R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 update-source lo0 R1(config-router)#network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 update-source lo0 R2(config-router)#network 10.2.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0 88. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address becomes the next active next hop for 192.168.102.0/24 when 192.168.101.2 fails? A. 192.168.101.18 B. 192.168.101.6 C. 192.168.101.10 D. 192.168.101.14 89. What is the correct EBGP path attribute list, ordered from most preferred to the least preferred, that the BGP best-path algorithm uses? A. weight, AS path, local preference, MED B. weight, local preference, AS path, MED C. local preference, weight, AS path, MED D. local preference, weight, MED, AS path 90. Which DNS lookup does an access point perform when attempting CAPWAP discovery? A. CISCO-DNA-CONTROILLER.local B. CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local C. CISCO-CONTROLLER.local D. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local 91. Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two) A. EIRP B. noise floor C. antenna gain D. RSSI E. transmit power 92. Which statement about Cisco EAP-FAST is true? A. It does not require a RADIUS server certificate B. It requires a client certificate C. It is an IETF standard. D. It operates in transparent mode 93. Refer to the exhibit. The WLC administrator sees that the controller to which a roaming client associates has Mobility Role Anchor configured under Clients > Detail. Which type of roaming is supported? A. Indirect B. Layer 3 intercontroller C. Layer 2 intercontroller D. Intercontroller 94. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration in this WLAN security setting. Which method can a client use to authenticate to the network? A. text string B. username and password C. certificate D. RADIUS token 95. What are two common sources of interference for WI-FI networks? (Choose two) A. radar B. LED lights C. rogue AP D. conventional oven E. fire alarm 96. An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN? A. ISE server B. local WLC C. RADIUS server D. anchor WLC 97. Which two descriptions of FlexConnect mode for Cisco APs are true? (Choose two) A. APs that operate in FlexConnect mode cannot detect rogue APs B. FlexConnect mode is used when the APs are set up in a mesh environment and used to bridge between each other C. FlexConnect mode is a feature that is designed to allow specified CAPWAP-enabled APs to exclude themselves from managing data traffic between clients and infrastructure D. When connected to the controller, FlexConnect APs can tunnel traffic back to the controller E. FlexConnect mode is a wireless solution for branch office and remote office deployments 98. When configuration WPA2 Enterprise on a WLAN, which additional security component configuration is required? A. NTP server B. PKI server C. RADIUS server D. TACACS server 99. An engineer configures a WLAN with fast transition enabled. Some legacy clients fail to connect to this WLAN. Which feature allows the legacy clients to connect while still allowing other clients to use fast transition based on their OLTIs? A. over the DS B. adaptive R C. 802.11V D. 802.11k 100. To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC to connect? A. Auto B. Active C. On D. Passive 101. A client device fails to see the enterprise SSID, but other devices are connected to it. What is the cause of this issue? A. The hidden SSID was not manually configured on the client B. The broadcast SSID was not manually configured on the client. C. The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured hidden SSID. D. The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured broadcast SSID. 102. A customer has several small branches and wants to deploy a WI-FI solution with local management using CAPWAP. Which deployment model meets this requirement? A. Autonomous B. Mobility express C. SD-Access wireless D. Local mode 103. Which two methods are used by an AP that is trying to discover a wireless LAN controller? (Choose two) A. Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbor B. broadcasting on the local subnet C. DNS lookup cisco-DNA-PRIMARY.local domain D. DHCP Option 43 E. querying other APs 104. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of antenna do the radiation patterns present? A. Patch B. Omnidirectional C. Yagi D. Dipole 105. Which two statements about HSRP are true? (Choose two) A. Its virtual MAC is 0000.0C07.ACxx B. Its multicast virtual MAC is 0000.5E00.01xx C. Its default configuration allows for pre-emption D. It supports tracking E. It supports unique virtual MAC addresses 106. Which behavior can be expected when the HSRP versions is changed from 1 to 2? A. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the virtual MAC address has changed B. No changes occur because version 1 and 2 use the same virtual MAC OUI C. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the multicast address has changed D. No changes occur because the standby router is upgraded before the active router 107. If a VRRP master router fails, which router is selected as the new master router? A. router with the highest priority B. router with the highest loopback address C. router with the lowest loopback address D. router with the lowest priority 108. Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol maximizes uplink utilization and minimizes the amount of configuration that is necessary? A. GLBP B. HSRP v2 C. VRRP D. HSRP v1 109. What are three valid HSRP states? (Choose three) A. listen B. learning C. full D. established E. speak F. INIT 110. Which two statements about VRRP are true? (Choose two) A. It is assigned multicast address 224.0.0.8. B. The TTL for VRRP packets must be 255. C. It is assigned multicast address 224.0.0.9. D. Its IP address number is 115. E. Three versions of the VRRP protocol have been defined. F. It supports both MD5 and SHA1 authentication. 111. Refer to this output What is the logging severity level? R1#Feb 14 37:15:12:429: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN Line protocol on interface GigabitEthernet0/1. Change state to up A. Notification B. Alert C. Critical D. Emergency 112. Which feature must be configured to allow packet capture over Layer 3 infrastructure? A. VSPAN B. IPSPAN C. RSPAN D. ERSPAN 113. Which two statements about IP SLA are true? (Choose two) A. SNMP access is not supported B. It uses active traffic monitoring C. It is Layer 2 transport-independent D. The IP SLA responder is a component in the source Cisco device E. It can measure MOS F. It uses NetFlow for passive traffic monitoring 114. At which layer does Cisco DNA Center support REST controls? A. EEM applets or scripts B. Session layer C. YMAL output from responses to API calls D. Northbound APIs 115. Which two steps are required for a complete Cisco DNA Center upgrade? (Choose two) A. golden image selection B. automation backup C. proxy configuration D. application updates E. system update 116. Which statement about an RSPAN session configuration is true? A. A fitter must be configured for RSPAN Regions B. Only one session can be configured at a time C. A special VLAN type must be used as the RSPAN destination. D. Only incoming traffic can be monitored 117. Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end? A. ICMP echo B. UDP jitter C. CMP jitter D. TCP connect 118. A network is being migrated from IPv4 to IPv6 using a dual-stack approach. Network management is already 100% IPv6 enabled. In a dual-stack network with two dual-stack NetFlow collections, how many flow exporters are needed per network device in the flexible NetFlow configuration? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 119. When using TLS for syslog, which configuration allows for secure and reliable transportation of messages to its default port? A. logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 6514 B. logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 6514 C. logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 514 D. logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 514 120. Refer to the exhibit. Which privilege level is assigned to VTY users? R1# sh run | begin line con line con 0 exec-timeout 0 0 privilege level 15 logging synchronous stoppbits 1 line aux 0 exec-timeout 0 0 privilege level 15 logging synchronous stoppbits 1 line vty 0 4 password 7 03384737389E938 login line vty 5 15 password 7 03384737389E938 login ! end R1#sh run | include aaa | enable no aaa new-model R1# A. 1 B. 7 C. 13 D. 15 121. Which technology provides a secure communication channel for all traffic at Layer 2 of the OSI model? A. MACsec B. IPsec C. SSL D. Cisco Trustsec 122. Which feature does Cisco TrustSec use to provide scalable, secure communication throughout a network? A. security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch B. security group tag number assigned to each port on a network C. security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch D. security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network 123. How does Cisco Trustsec enable more access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers? A. uses flexible NetFlow B. assigns a VLAN to the endpoint C. classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address D. classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition 124. What is the difference between the enable password and the enable secret password when password encryption is enable on an IOS device? A. The enable password is encrypted with a stronger encryption method B. There is no difference and both passwords are encrypted identically C. The enable password cannot be decrypted D. The enable secret password is protected via stronger cryptography mechanisms 125. The login method is configured on the VTY lines of a router with these parameters. – The first method for authentication is TACACS – If TACACS is unavailable, login is allowed without any provided credentials Which configuration accomplishes this task? A. R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login VTY group tacacs+ none aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 password 7 0202039485748 R1#sh run | include username R1# B. R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 transport input none R1# C. R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ none aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 password 7 0202039485748 D. R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login telnet group tacacs+ none aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 R1#sh run | include username R1# 126. Which NGFW mode block flows crossing the firewall? A. Passive B. Tap C. Inline tap D. Inline 127. Which method does the enable secret password option use to encrypt device passwords? A. AES B. CHAP C. PAP D. MD5 128. Which standard access control entry permits from odd-numbered hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet? A. Permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.1 B. Permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.0 C. Permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.254 D. Permit 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.254 129. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must block all traffic from a router to its directly connected subnet 209.165.200.0/24. The engineer applies access control list EGRESS in the outbound direction on the GigabitEthemet0/0 interface of the router. However, the router can still ping hosts on the 209.165.200.0/24 subnet. Which explanation of this behavior is true? Extended IP access list EGRESS 10 permit ip 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 any ! —output omitted— ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 209.165.200.255 255.255.255.0 ip access-group EGRESS out duplex auto speed auto media-type rj45 ! A. Access control lists that are applied outbound to a router interface do not affect traffic that is sourced from the router B. Only standard access control lists can block traffic from a source IP address C. After an access control list is applied to an interface, that interface must be shut and no shut for the access control list to take effect D. The access control list must contain an explicit deny to block traffic from the router 130. A client with IP address 209.165.201.25 must access a web server on port 80 at 209.165.200.225. To allow this traffic, an engineer must add a statement to an access control list that is applied in the inbound direction on the port connecting to the web server. Which statement allows this traffic? A. permit tcp host 209.165.201.25 eq 80 host 209.165.200.225 B. permit tcp host 209.165.201.25 host 209.165.200.225 eq 80 C. permit tcp host 209.165.200.225 eq 80 host 209.165.201.25 D. permit tcp host 209.165.200.225 host 209.165.201.25 eq 80 131. Which access controls list allows only TCP traffic with a destination port range of 22-443, excluding port 80? A. Deny tcp any any eq 80 Permit tcp any any gt 21 lt 444 B. Permit tcp any any neq 80 C. Permit tcp any any range 22 443 Deny tcp any any eq 80 D. Deny tcp any any neq 80 Permit tcp any any range 22 443 132. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must modify the access control list EGRESS to allow all IP traffic from subnet 10.1.10.0/24 to 10.1.2.0/24. The access control list is applied in the outbound direction on router interface GigabitEthemet 0/1. Extended IP access list EGRESS 10 permit ip 10.1.100.0 0.0.0.255 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255 20 deny ip any any Which configuration commands can the engineer use to allow this traffic without disrupting existing traffic flows? A. config t ip access-list extended EGRESS permit ip 10.1.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 B. config t ip access-list extended EGRESS 5 permit ip 10.1.10.0 0.0.0.255 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255 C. config t ip access-list extended EGRESS2 permit ip 10.1.10.0 0.0.0.295 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.299 permit ip 10.1.100.0 0.0.0.299 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.299 deny ip any any ! interface g0/1 no ip access-group EGRESS out ip access-group EGRESS2 out D. config t ip access-list extended EGRESS permit ip 10.1.10.0 0.0.0.255 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255 133. Which requirement for an Ansible-managed node is true? A. It must be a Linux server or a Cisco device B. It must have an SSH server running C. It must support ad hoc commands. D. It must have an Ansible Tower installed 134. Which statement about TLS is true when using RESTCONF to write configurations on network devices? A. It is provided using NGINX acting as a proxy web server B. It is no supported on Cisco devices C. It required certificates for authentication D. It is used for HTTP and HTTPs requests 135. Which two operations are valid for RESTCONF? (Choose two) A. HEAD B. REMOVE C. PULL D. PATCH E. ADD F. PUSH 136. Which exhibit displays a valid JSON file? A. { ―hostname‖: ―edge_router_1‖ ―interfaces‖: { ―GigabitEthernet1/1‖ ―GigabitEthernet1/2‖ ―GigabitEthernet1/3‖ } } B. { ―hostname‖: ―edge_router_1‖ ―interfaces‖: { ―GigabitEthernet1/1‖, ―GigabitEthernet1/2‖, ―GigabitEthernet1/3‖, }, } C. { ―hostname‖: ―edge_router_1‖ ―interfaces‖: [ ―GigabitEthernet1/1‖ ―GigabitEthernet1/2‖ ―GigabitEthernet1/3‖ ] } D. { ―hostname‖: ―edge_router_1‖, ―interfaces‖: [ ―GigabitEthernet1/1‖, ―GigabitEthernet1/2‖, ―GigabitEthernet1/3‖ ] } 137. Which method creates an EEM applet policy that is registered with EEM and runs on demand or manually? A. event manager applet ondemand event register action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg ‗This is a message from ondemand‘ B. event manager applet ondemand event manual action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg ‗This is a message from ondemand‘ C. event manager applet ondemand event none action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg ‗This is a message from ondemand‘ D. event manager applet ondemand action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg ‗This is a message from ondemand‘ 138. What does this EEM applet event accomplish? ―event snmp oid 1.3.6.1.3.7.1.5.1.2.4.2.9 get-type next entry-op go entry-val 75 poll-interval 5” A. It issues email when the value is greater than 75% for five polling cydes B. It reads an SNMP variable, and when the value exceeds 75%, it triggers an action GO C. It presents a SNMP variable that can be interrogated D. Upon the value reaching 75%, a SNMP event is generated and sent to the trap server 139. What is the structure of a JSON web token? A. three parts separated by dots header payload, and signature B. header and payload C. three parts separated by dots version header and signature D. payload and signature 140. Which two statements about the EEM applet configuration are true? (Choose two) A. The EEM applet runs before the CLI command is executed B. The EEM applet runs after the CLI command is executed C. The EEM applet requires a case-insensitive response D. The running configuration is displayed only if the letter Y is entered at the CLI 141. Which network script automation option or tool is used in the exhibit? https://mydevice.mycompany.com/getstuff?queryName=errors&queryResults=yes A. EEM B. Python C. Bash script D. NETCONF E. REST 142. Which two protocols are used with YANG data models? (Choose two) A. HTTPS B. SSH C. RESTCONF D. TLS E. NETCONF 143. Which protocol does REST API rely on to secure the communication channel? A. TCP B. HTTPS C. SSH D. HTTP 144. Which JSON syntax is valid? A. {―switch‖:‖name‖:‖dist1″,‖interfaces‖:[―gig1″,‖gig2″,‖gig3‖]} B. {‗switch‘:(‗name‘:‘dist1′,‘interfaces‘:[‗gig1′,‘gig2′,‘gig3‘])} C. {―switch‖:{―name‖:‖dist1″,‖interfaces‖:[―gig1″,‖gig2″,‖gig3‖]}} D. {/‖switch/‖:{/‖name/‖:‖dist1″,/‖interfaces/‖:[―gig1″,‖gig2″,‖gig3‖]}} 145. Which statements are used for error handling in Python? A. try/catch B. try/except C. block/rescue D. catch/release 146. Which HTTP JSON response does the python code output give? A. NameError: name ‗json‘ is not defined B. KeyError ‗kickstart_ver_str‘ C. 7.61 D. 7.0(3)I7(4) 147. Which data modeling language is commonly used by NETCONF? A. HTML B. XML C. YANG D. REST 148. A response code of 404 is received while using the REST API on Cisco UNA Center to POST to this URL /dna/intent/api/v1 /template-programmer/project What does the code mean? A. The client made a request a resource that does not exist B. The server has not implemented the functionality that is needed to fulfill the request C. The request accepted for processing, but the processing was not completed D. The POST/PUT request was fulfilled and a new resource was created, information about the resource is in the response body 149. Which HTTP status code is the correct response for a request with an incorrect password applied to a REST API session? A. HTTP Status Code 200 B. HTTP Status Code 302 C. HTTP Status Code 401 D. HTTP Status Code 504 150. In which part of the HTTP message is the content type specified? A. HTTP method B. URI C. header D. body 151. What do Cisco DNA southbound APIs provide? A. Interface between the controller and the network devices B. NETCONF API interface for orchestration communication C. RESTful API interface for orchestrator communication D. Interface between the controller and the consumer 152. Which method displays text directly into the active console with a synchronous EEM applet policy? A. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern ‗UP‘ action 1.0 gets ‗logging directly to console‘ B. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern ‗UP‘ action 1.0 syslog priority direct msg ‗log directly to console‘ C. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern ‗UP‘ action 1.0 puts ‗logging directly to console‘ D. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern ‗UP‘ action 1.0 string ‗logging directly to console‘ 153. What is the JSON syntax that is formed the data? A. Name: Bob, Johnson, Age: 76, Alive: true, Favourite Foods. [Cereal, ―Mustard‖, ―Onions}} B. Name‖, ―Bob Johnson‖, ―Age‖, 76, ―Alive‖, true, ―favourite Foods‖, [―Cereal, ―Mustard‖, Onions‖}} C. Name‘, ‗Bob Johnson,‘ ‗Age‘, 76, ‗Alive‘, true, ‗favourite Foods‘ ‗Cereal Mustard‘, ‗Onions‘} D. Name‖, ―Bob Johnson‖, ―Age‖: Seventysix, ―Alive‖ true, ―favourite Foods‖ ,[Cereal‖ ―Mustard‖ ―Onions‖}} E. {―Name‖:‖Bob Johnson‖,‖age‖:76,‖alive‖:true,‖favorite foods‖:[―Cereal‖,‖Mustard‖,‖Onions‖]} 154. Which statement about agent-based versus agentless configuration management tools is true? A. Agentless tools require no messaging systems between master and slaves. B. Agentless tools use proxy nodes to interface with slave nodes. C. Agent-based tools do not require a high-level language interpreter such as Python or Ruby on slave nodes D. Agent-based tools do not require installation of additional software packages on the slave nodes. 155. What is a benefit of data modeling languages like YANG? A. They enable programmers to change or write their own application within the device operating system B. They create more secure and efficient SNMP OIDs. C. They make the CLI simpler and more efficient. D. They provide a standardized data structure, which results in configuration scalability and consistency. 156. Which variable in an EEM applet is set when you use the sync yes option? A. $_cli_result B. $_result C. $_string_result D. $_exit_status 157. Which two mechanisms are available to secure NTP? (Choose two) A. IP prefix list-based B. IPsec C. TACACS-based authentication D. IP access list-based E. Encrypted authentication 158. What are two effect of this configuration? (Choose two) A. Inside source addresses are translated to the 209.165.201.0/27 subnet B. It establishes a one-to-one NAT translation C. The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside global address range D. The 209.165.201.0/27 subnet is assigned as the outside local address range E. The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside local addresses 159. Link1 is a copper connection and Link2 is a fiber connection. The fiber port must be the primary port for all forwarding. The output of the show spanning-tree command on SW2 shows that the fiber port is blocked by spanning tree. An engineer enters the spanning-tree port-priority 32 command on G0/1 on SW2, but the port remains blocked. Which command should be entered on the ports that are connected to Link2 to resolve the issue? A. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 32 on SW1 B. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 224 on SW1 C. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 4 on SW2 D. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 64 on SW2 160. What is a benefit of deploying an on-premises infrastructure versus a cloud infrastructure deployment? A. faster deployment times because additional infrastructure does not need to be purchased B. lower latency between systems that are physically located near each other C. less power and cooling resources needed to run infrastructure on-premises D. ability to quickly increase compute power without the need to install additional hardware 161. Which two GRE features are configured to prevent fragmentation? (Choose two) A. TCP window size B. TCP MSS C. IP MTU D. DF bit Clear E. MTU ignore F. PMTUD 162. Which TCP setting is tuned to minimize the risk of fragmentation on a GRE/IP tunnel? A. MTU B. Window size C. MRU D. MSS 163. A network administrator is implementing a routing configuration change and enables routing debugs to track routing behavior during the change. The logging output on the terminal is interrupting the command typing process. Which two actions can the network administrator take to minimize the possibility of typing commands incorrectly? (Choose two) A. Configure the logging synchronous global configuration command B. Configure the logging delimiter feature C. Configure the logging synchronous command under the vty D. Press the TAB key to reprint the command in a new line E. Increase the number of lines on the screen using the terminal length command 164. Which statement about multicast RPs is true? A. RPs are required only when using protocol independent multicast dense mode B. RPs are required for protocol independent multicast sparse mode and dense mode C. By default, the RP is needed periodically to maintain sessions with sources and receivers D. By default, the RP is needed only to start new sessions with sources and receivers 165. Which IPv6 migration method relies on dynamic tunnels that use the 2002::/16 reserved address space? A. 6RD B. 6to4 C. ISATAP D. GRE 166. A GRE tunnel is down with the error message %TUN-5-RECUR DOWN: Which two options describe possible causes of the error? (Choose two) A. Incorrect destination IP addresses are configured on the tunnel B. There is link flapping on the tunnel C. There is instability in the network due to route flapping D. The tunnel mode and tunnel IP address are misconfigured E. The tunnel destination is being routed out of the tunnel interface Loading … Question 1 of 166
